1. | is required for preliminary studies of various aspects of a work or project. |
A. | supplementary estimate |
B. | plinth area estimate |
C. | revised estimate |
D. | abstract estimate |
Answer» D. abstract estimate | |
Explanation: to decide the financial position and policy for administrative sanction by the competent administrative authority. in case of |
2. | Per kilometre basis depending on the nature of road, for 10 km of a state highway approx. cost @ Rs. 50000/- per 1 km works out as Rs. 5 lakh. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: per kilometre basis depending on the nature of road, for 10 km of a state highway approx. cost @ rs. 500000/- per 1 km works out as rs. 50 lakh. |
3. | Approx. cost of a bridge of 3 spans of 50 m each span sherrylarson51.30000/- per running m of span comes to 3*50*30000 = Rs. 45 lakhs. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: per running metre of span depending on the roadway, nature and depth of foundation, type of structure, etc. for small culverts approx. cost may also be per number of culverts of different spans. |
4. | Approximate cost of sewerage project for a population of one Rs. 10/- head works out as Rs. 10 lakh. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: approximate cost of sewerage project for a population of one rs. 100/- head works out as rs. 100 lakhs. |
5. | is prepared on the basis of plinth area of building, the rate being deducted from the cost of similar building having similar specification, heights and construction, in the locality. |
A. | cube rate estimate |
B. | supplementary estimate |
C. | maintenance estimate |
D. | plinth area estimate |
Answer» D. plinth area estimate | |
Explanation: plinth area estimate is calculated by finding the plinth area of the building and multiplying by the plinth area rate. the plinth area should be calculated for the covered area by taking external dimension of the building at the floor level. |
6. | is the amount provided in the estimate and bill of quantities for some specialised work to be done by a specialised firm; whose details are not known at the time of preparing estimate. |
A. | prime cost |
B. | provisional sum |
C. | capital cost |
D. | building cost index |
Answer» B. provisional sum | |
Explanation: the work like installation of refrigerating machine; installation of lift, air conditioning, etc., for which full information |
7. | estimate is a detailed estimate and is prepared to maintain the structure or work in proper order and safe condition. |
A. | supplementary and revised estimate |
B. | maintenance estimate |
C. | item rate estimate |
D. | revised estimate |
Answer» B. maintenance estimate | |
Explanation: for building; this includes white washing, colour washing, painting, minor repairs etc. for road works the a.r. estimate provides for patch repairing, renewals, repair of culverts, etc. |
8. | A large work or project may consists of several building or small works and each of these work is known as |
A. | sub-work |
B. | sub-project |
C. | sub-head |
D. | sub-construction |
Answer» A. sub-work | |
Explanation: detailed estimate of each sub- work is prepared separately and accounts of expenditure are kept sub-work wise. |
9. | The term is used to denote a procedure of costing or valuing an item of work on the basis of actual labourers and materials required. |
A. | prime cost |
B. | hour-work |
C. | day-work |
D. | sub-work |
Answer» C. day-work | |
Explanation: certain items of work which cannot be measured as- a design in the plaster work, front architectural finish of a building, work under water, etc. are valued and paid by ‘day work’. in such cases the schedule of rates of materials and different classes of labourers likely to be engaged in th work should be included in the tender and in contract agreement. |
10. | The surface of the highway pavement should be designed to allow |
A. | high rolling resistance |
B. | low rolling resistance |
C. | no rolling resistance |
D. | very high rolling resistance |
Answer» B. low rolling resistance | |
Explanation: the surface of highway pavement should be designed to allow no rolling resistance for safety purposes. |
11. | The soil becomes weak in |
A. | summer |
B. | winter |
C. | rainy season |
D. | spring season |
Answer» C. rainy season | |
Explanation: the soil becomes weak in rainy season due to the absorption of water in the soil. |
12. | Which of the following pavement has greater life? |
A. | bituminous pavements |
B. | cement concrete pavements |
C. | gravel roads |
D. | earth roads |
Answer» B. cement concrete pavements | |
Explanation: the cement concrete roads have a greater life than remaining all pavements which may last even up to 100 years. |
13. | Which of the following requirement is given most importance in highway design? |
A. | structural |
B. | functional |
C. | seasonal |
D. | maintenance |
Answer» A. structural | |
Explanation: the structural design like highway speed, geometric design is given the most importance in design. |
14. | The surface of the pavement should be |
A. | smooth |
B. | rough |
C. | sufficient enough to resist skid |
D. | very rough |
Answer» C. sufficient enough to resist skid | |
Explanation: the surface of the pavement should be sufficient enough to resist the skid of vehicles by using friction. |
15. | The drainage layer is |
A. | surface course |
B. | sub base |
C. | base |
D. | sub grade |
Answer» B. sub base | |
Explanation: the drainage layer is the sub base layer that is used to collect the water from pavement surfaces to send to ground water. |
16. | The maximum stress sustained by concrete pavements in kg/cm2 is |
A. | 40 |
B. | 45 |
C. | 50 |
D. | 55 |
Answer» B. 45 | |
Explanation: the concrete pavements are designed to sustain a stress of 45kg/cm2 which is the maximum limit. |
17. | The ICPB type of pavement uses |
A. | concrete paver blocks |
B. | fly ash |
C. | ggbs |
D. | rmc |
Answer» A. concrete paver blocks | |
Explanation: the icpb uses mostly interlocking concrete paver blocks for the construction of pavements. |
18. | The ICPB may be used in |
A. | water logged areas |
B. | parks |
C. | footpaths |
D. | highways |
Answer» A. water logged areas | |
Explanation: the inter locking concrete paver blocks may be used in water logged areas to absorb the water and send it to the ground water. |
19. | The maximum length of vehicle that can be used on Indian roads is |
A. | 11 |
B. | 12 |
C. | 13 |
D. | 14 |
Answer» B. 12 | |
Explanation: the maximum length of a vehicle in india is restricted as per the rotary design of the highway which is maximum 12m. |
20. | 3 SEPTIC TANK |
A. | 12 |
B. | 10 |
C. | 8 |
D. | 15 |
Answer» D. 15 | |
Explanation: the design life of flexible pavement is considered as 15 years, it may last even further if properly maintained. |
21. | The design period of cement concrete road is taken as |
A. | 20 |
B. | 25 |
C. | 30 |
D. | 35 |
Answer» C. 30 | |
Explanation: the design period of cement roads is usually taken as 30 years but they can even last longer if properly maintained and designed. |
22. | In India the flexible pavement is designed as per |
A. | msa |
B. | ksa |
C. | csa |
D. | fsa |
Answer» A. msa | |
Explanation: the flexible pavements are designed as per irc 37 which uses msa to specify the unit of the vehicles. |
23. | Which of the following materials is not used in the construction of a septic tank? |
A. | concrete |
B. | rubber |
C. | fibreglass |
D. | plastic |
Answer» B. rubber | |
Explanation: a septic tank is a watertight chamber made of brick-work, concrete, fiberglass, pvc or plastic, through which black water from the cistern or pour-flush toilets and grey water through a pipe from inside a building or an outside toilet flows for primary treatment. |
24. | Septic tank is a small scale treatment unit. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: the septic tank is the most common small-scale decentralized unit for grey water and black water from cistern or pour-flush toilets. it is basically a sedimentation tank. |
25. | The shape of the tank is circular. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: the shape of the septic tank can be rectangular or cylindrical. septic tanks are used for wastewater with a high content of settleable solids, typically for effluent from domestic sources. |
26. | The heavy particles in the tank |
A. | float |
B. | sink into the bottom |
C. | separated using magnetic methods |
D. | flow along liquid |
Answer» B. sink into the bottom | |
Explanation: liquid flows through the top and heavy particles sink to the bottom, while scum floats to the top. over time, the solids that settle to the bottom are degraded anaerobically. |
27. | The scum formed in the tank |
A. | flows |
B. | gets dissolved |
C. | sink into the bottom |
D. | floats on top |
Answer» D. floats on top | |
Explanation: the scum formed in the tanks floats over the top. over time, the solids that settle to the bottom are degraded anaerobically. |
28. | Which of the following methods are not used for the dispersion of the effluent out of a septic tank? |
A. | wetlands |
B. | soak pit |
C. | evapo-transpiration mound |
D. | leach field |
Answer» A. wetlands | |
Explanation: by using a soak pit, evapo- transpiration mound or leach field, the effluent of the septic tank must be dispersed or transported to another treatment technology via a solids-free sewer, simplified sewer or solids-free sewer. |
29. | During the disposal of the sludge, it must be |
A. | liquefied |
B. | dried |
C. | burned |
D. | fluidized |
Answer» B. dried | |
Explanation: the sludge can be dried in planted or unplanted drying beds, settling or thickening ponds. if the sludge is dried or composted, it can be applied in agriculture as a valuable nutrient. |
30. | The first chamber in a septic tank should be at least of the total length. |
A. | 10 % |
B. | 20 % |
C. | 35 % |
D. | 50 % |
Answer» D. 50 % | |
Explanation: the first chamber should be at least 50% of the total length and when there are only two chambers, it should be two thirds of the total length. most of the solids settle out in the first chamber. |
31. | Which of the following reasons is correct with respect to the need of providing baffle walls? |
A. | mixing of scum and wastewater |
B. | settling of heavy particles |
C. | increase velocity of the liquid |
D. | prevent scum and solids from escaping |
Answer» D. prevent scum and solids from escaping | |
Explanation: the baffle or the separation between the chambers is to prevent scum and solids from escaping with the effluent. a t- shaped outlet pipe, the lower arm of which divides 30 cm below water level, further reduces the scum and solids that are discharged. |
32. | What are the product gases of anaerobic digestion? |
A. | carbon-dioxide and methane |
B. | methane and oxygen |
C. | oxygen and carbon-dioxide |
D. | nitrogen and methane |
Answer» A. carbon-dioxide and methane | |
Explanation: over time, anaerobic bacteria and micro-organisms start to digest the settled sludge anaerobically, transforming it into co2 and ch4 and some heat. optimal physical treatment by sedimentation takes place when the flow is smooth and undisturbed. |
33. | What is the mixture of methane and carbon-dioxide of anaerobic digestion called? |
A. | waste gases |
B. | poisonous gas |
C. | biogas |
D. | carbo-methane |
Answer» C. biogas | |
Explanation: the mixture of methane and carbon-dioxide of an anaerobic digestion is called biogas. over time, anaerobic bacteria and micro-organisms start to digest the settled sludge anaerobically, transforming it into co2 and ch4 and some heat. |
34. | The term “septic” refers to |
A. | anaerobic bacterial environment that develops in the tank |
B. | refers to safety and precaution |
C. | drainage of waste materials |
D. | aerobic bacterial environment that develops in the tank |
Answer» A. anaerobic bacterial environment that develops in the tank | |
Explanation: the term “septic” refers to the anaerobic bacterial environment that develops in the tank which decomposes or mineralizes the waste discharged into the tank. septic tanks can be coupled with other onsite wastewater treatment units such as biofilters or aerobic systems involving artificially forced aeration. |
35. | Septic tank is usually consists of brick wall in cement not less than |
A. | 20 cm |
B. | 100 cm |
C. | 80 cm |
D. | 200 cm |
Answer» A. 20 cm | |
Explanation: septic tank is usually consists of brick wall in cement not less than 20cm(9”) thick and the foundation floor are of cement concrete 1:3:6 or 1:2:4. both inside and outside faces of wall and floor are plastered with a minimum thickness of 12mm thick cement mortar 1:3 and all inside corners are rounded. |
36. | A is a type of toilet that collects human faeces in a hole in the ground. |
A. | gutter |
B. | septic tank |
C. | pit toilet |
D. | latrine |
Answer» C. pit toilet | |
Explanation: a pit latrine or pit toilet is a type of toilet that collects human faeces in a hole in the ground. they use either no water or one to three litres per flush with pour-flush pit latrines. when properly built and maintained they can decrease the spread of disease by reducing the amount of human faeces in the environment from open defecation. this decreases the transfer of pathogens between faeces and food by flies. |
37. | The size of the faeces drop hole in the floor or slab should not be larger than |
A. | 5m |
B. | 25 cm |
C. | 45 cm |
D. | 250 mm |
Answer» B. 25 cm | |
Explanation: the user positions themself over the small drop hole during use. the size of the feces drop hole in the floor or slab should not be larger than 25 centimeters (9.8 inches) to prevent children falling in. light should be prevented from entering the pit to reduce access by flies. this requires the use of a lid to cover the hole in the floor when not in use. however, in practice, such a lid is not commonly used as it is easy to lose it or for the lid to get very filthy. |
38. | As of 2013 pit latrines are used by an estimated people. |
A. | 1.77 billion |
B. | 2.77 million |
C. | 1.77 billion |
D. | 4.66 billion |
Answer» C. 1.77 billion | |
Explanation: this is mostly in the developing world as well as in rural and wilderness areas. in 2011 about 2.5 billion people did not have access to a proper toilet and one billion resort to open defecation in their surroundings. southern asia and sub- |
39. | As a very general guideline it is recommended that the bottom of the pit should be at least above groundwater level. |
A. | 0.5 m |
B. | 2 m |
C. | 12 m |
D. | 20 m |
Answer» B. 2 m | |
Explanation: as a very general guideline it is recommended that the bottom of the pit should be at least 2 m above groundwater level, and a minimum horizontal distance of 30 m between a pit and a water source is normally recommended to limit exposure to microbial contamination.[1]however, no general statement should be made regarding the minimum lateral separation distances required to prevent contamination of a well from a pit latrine. for example, even 50 m lateral separation distance might not be sufficient in a strongly karstified system with a down gradient supply well or spring, while 10 m lateral separation distance is completely sufficient if there is a well developed clay cover layer and the annular space of the groundwater well is well sealed. |
40. | A houses the squatting pan or toilet seat and provides privacy and protection from the weather for the user. |
A. | roof |
B. | terrace |
C. | shade |
D. | shelter |
Answer» D. shelter | |
Explanation: a shelter, shed, small building or “super-structure” houses the squatting pan or toilet seat and provides privacy and |
41. | The theory of plasticity pertaining to soils is based on |
A. | mohr’s theory |
B. | rankine’s method |
C. | mohr-coulomb theory |
D. | none of the mentioned |
Answer» A. mohr’s theory | |
Explanation: the theory of plasticity pertaining to soils is based on mohr’s theory of rupture. |
42. | On designing retaining walls it is necessary to take care of exerted by soil mass. |
A. | erosion |
B. | lateral pressure |
C. | surcharge |
D. | lateral stress |
Answer» B. lateral pressure | |
Explanation: in the designing of retaining walls; sheet piles or other earth-retaining structures, it is necessary to compute the lateral pressure exerted by the retained mass of soil. |
43. | The material retained or supported by the retaining structure is called |
A. | surcharge |
B. | support wall |
C. | back fill |
D. | all of the mentioned |
Answer» C. back fill | |
Explanation: the material retained or supported by the structure is called backfill which may have its top surface horizontal or inclined. |
44. | The coefficient of earth pressure when the soil is at equilibrium is |
A. | σv /σh |
B. | σh /σv |
C. | σv × σh |
D. | σ1 / σ3 |
Answer» B. σh /σv | |
Explanation: when the soil is at elastic equilibrium(i.e. at rest) the ratio of horizontal to vertical stress is called the co-efficient of earth pressure of rest. |
45. | The computation of stress in plastic equilibrium is based on |
A. | theory of plasticity |
B. | mohr’s theory of rupture |
C. | rankine’s theory |
D. | all of the mentioned |
Answer» A. theory of plasticity | |
Explanation: the theory on which the computation of the stress in a state of plastic equilibrium is based is called the theory of plasticity. |
46. | The wedge-shaped portion of the backfill tending to move with the wall is called |
A. | wedge fall |
B. | active fall |
C. | failure wedge |
D. | none of the mentioned |
Answer» C. failure wedge | |
Explanation: during the active state, the wall moves away from backfill and a certain portion of the backfill in wedged-shaped tend to move which is called a failure wedge. |
47. | In active stress, the major principal stress σ1 acting on the wall will be in plane. |
A. | vertical |
B. | horizontal |
C. | inclined |
D. | zero |
Answer» B. horizontal | |
Explanation: in an active state, the major principal stress σ1 is vertical and the minor principal stress σ3 is horizontal. |
48. | The plastic state of stress was proposed by |
A. | mohr |
B. | rankine |
C. | coulomb |
D. | darcy |
Answer» B. rankine | |
Explanation: the plastic state of stress when the failure is imminent was investigated by rankine in 1860. |
49. | The position of the backfill lying above the horizontal plane at the top of wall is called |
A. | active state |
B. | plasticity |
C. | surcharge |
D. | slip lines |
Answer» C. surcharge | |
Explanation: the position of the backfill lying above a horizontal plane at the elevation of the top of a wall is called the surcharge, and its inclination to the horizontal is called surcharge angle β. |
50. | A structure that allows water to flow under a road, railroad, trail, or similar obstruction from one side to the other side is called as |
A. | drainage |
B. | bridges |
C. | tunnel |
D. | culverts |
Answer» D. culverts | |
Explanation: culverts are commonly used both as cross-drains for ditch relief and to pass water under a road at natural drainage and stream crossings. a culvert may be a bridge-like structure designed to allow vehicle or pedestrian traffic to cross over the waterway while allowing adequate passage for the water. |
51. | A structure that carries water above land is known as an |
A. | aqueduct |
B. | aquedant |
C. | over surface |
D. | outland |
Answer» A. aqueduct | |
Explanation: bridges for conveying water, called aqueducts or water bridges are constructed to convey watercourses across gaps such as valleys or ravines. the term aqueduct may also be used to refer to the entire watercourse, as well as the bridge. |
52. | If the span of crossing is greater than 12 feet (3.7 m), the structure is termed as bridge and otherwise is culvert. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: a bridge is a structure built to span physical obstacles without closing the way underneath such as a body of water, valley, or road, for the purpose of providing passage over the obstacle. there are many different designs that each serve a particular purpose and apply to different situations. |
53. | Culverts cannot be constructed of a variety of materials including cast-in-place or precast concrete. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: culverts can be constructed of a variety of materials including cast-in-place or precast concrete (reinforced or non- reinforced), galvanized steel, aluminium, or plastic, typically high-density polyethylene. two or more materials may be combined to |
54. | A culvert can be used to span over a canyon, or depression, or even over a freeway or roadway. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: a bridge doesn’t necessarily have to bridge over water. a bridge can be used to span over a canyon, or depression, or even over a freeway or roadway. |
55. | Construction or installation at a culvert site generally results in disturbance of the site soil. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: construction or installation at a culvert site generally results in disturbance of the site soil, stream banks, or streambed, and can result in the occurrence of unwanted problems such as scour holes or slumping of banks adjacent to the culvert structure. |
56. | Box culverts can be defined as a passage for water over a natural ground having a deck |
A. | outlighting |
B. | culverting |
C. | daylighting |
D. | inlighting |
Answer» C. daylighting | |
Explanation: in urban design and urban planning, daylighting is the redirection of a stream into an above-ground channel. |
57. | culverts have a concrete (sometimes other materials can be used too) floor allowing the water to flow smoothly through it. |
A. | box |
B. | cylindrical |
C. | narrow |
D. | long |
Answer» A. box | |
Explanation: box culverts are usually made up of reinforced concrete (rcc). some box culverts can be built using composite structures and are great when water needs to change direction or when a large flow of water is expected. box culverts can also be installed in such way that the top of the culvert is also the roadway surface. the most challenging part of installing these type of culverts is that you generally will need to have a dry surface to install the culvert, so dewatering or diversion of the water will be needed to complete the installation. |
58. | A is very useful equipment and it can be used for construction work like to clear the site of work, to make the land level, etc. |
A. | scraper |
B. | grader |
C. | excavator |
D. | bulldozer |
Answer» D. bulldozer | |
Explanation: depending upon the mountains, bulldozer maybe crawler tractor mounted bulldozer or will tractor mounted bulldozer. |
59. | The size of the bulldozer is indicated by the dimension of its |
A. | site |
B. | tyre |
C. | engine |
D. | blades |
Answer» D. blades | |
Explanation: each blade has a theoretical capacity of hauling a particular type of earth and knowing the number of turns a bulldozer will make in a given time, the approximate output of a bulldozer can be activated. |
60. | A can be used on wet ground and in all conditions of weather. |
A. | grader |
B. | scraper |
C. | escalator |
D. | bulldozer |
Answer» D. bulldozer | |
Explanation: by suitable attachments to the bulldozer, it can be utilized to remove trees, |
61. | A is used to level the ground and spreads the loose material. |
A. | excavator |
B. | scraper |
C. | grader |
D. | tractor |
Answer» C. grader | |
Explanation: grader is a self propelled at home by a tractor. it consists of 3 to 4 m long angled blade supported on a framework mounted on wheels. it performs various operations like grading, spreading, side cutting and mixing of materials. |
62. | A Grader which is told by a tractor is known as |
A. | tractor grader |
B. | motor grader |
C. | scraper |
D. | elevating grader |
Answer» D. elevating grader | |
Explanation: the self propelled greater is known as a motor grader. for grading the machine moves forward and steering in controlling by steering wheel. |
63. | consists of a large bucket which is attached to a tractor. |
A. | bulldozer |
B. | scraper |
C. | grader |
D. | escalator |
Answer» B. scraper | |
Explanation: the capacity of scrapper varies from 3 m cube to 9 m cube. the scrap as a cutting edge or blade and the bottom and it is possible to dig earth to a depth of about 250 mm. |
64. | are usually mounted on two or four pneumatic tyred wheels. |
A. | scraper |
B. | backactor |
C. | elevator |
D. | escalator |
Answer» A. scraper | |
Explanation: an apron is provided in front of the container which opens and close in order to regulate the flow of earth in and out of the container. scrapers are capable of producing a very smooth and accurate formation level. |
65. | type of scraper consists of a four wheeled scrapper bowl towed behind crawler Power unit. |
A. | three axle |
B. | two axle |
C. | crawler drawn |
D. | four axle |
Answer» C. crawler drawn | |
Explanation: capacities of a scrapper bowl ranges from 3 metre cube to 50 metre cube. the speed of operation is governed by the speed of towing vehicles, which is 8 km per hour when hauling, and 3 km per hour, when scrapping. |
66. | An is an oldest type of machine which removes earth. |
A. | escalator |
B. | excavator |
C. | elevator |
D. | bulldozer |
Answer» B. excavator | |
Explanation: excavator performs it work of moving the earth while the main unit is stationary. the title effort is required to move the dead weight of earth in a vertical plane. |
67. | type of excavator used for digging the foundation trenches below operating level. |
A. | clamshell |
B. | backactor |
C. | power shovel |
D. | skimmer |
Answer» B. backactor | |
Explanation: back trench hoe excavator can also be used for the excavation of smaller areas such as basement, footing and trenches. the hoe is an instrument for scrapping, digging and losing the earth. |
68. | type of excavator is used for digging below, at or above operating level in a vertical range. |
A. | skimmer |
B. | dragline |
C. | clamshell |
D. | back trench |
Answer» C. clamshell | |
Explanation: the clamshell excavator are widely used for rehandling of material and for working in limited space as in case of foundation trenches for pipelines, etc. it is also used for jobs that require fairly accurate dumping and disposal of material. |
69. | type of excavator carries Shovel at its lower end. |
A. | power shovel |
B. | dragline |
C. | clamshell |
D. | backactor |
Answer» A. power shovel | |
Explanation: power shovel excavator is used to dig at or above the operating level. it can handle loose rock and the material caught in the shovel can be suitably disposed off. |
70. | type of excavator is used for digging at or below the operating level. |
A. | skimmer |
B. | dragline |
C. | power shovel |
D. | dredger |
Answer» B. dragline | |
Explanation: the various types of dragline excavator are available and the factor affecting the output of a dragline excavator |
71. | type of excavator carries the skimmer at its lower end. |
A. | skimmer |
B. | dredger |
C. | escalator |
D. | elevator |
Answer» A. skimmer | |
Explanation: skimmer is used for surface excavation and levelling and it cuts the surface of earth to a depth of about 200 mm to 300 mm. the skimmer excavator can also be used for loading the loose excavated material. |
72. | Which of the following is not a classification of labour? |
A. | skilled first class |
B. | skilled second class |
C. | unskilled |
D. | unskilled fourth class |
Answer» D. unskilled fourth class | |
Explanation: labour is classified into skilled first-class, skilled second class and unskilled. the purpose of analysis of rates is for working out the economical use of materials and the actual cost of per unit of the items. |
73. | The concrete used for cement concrete roads is of grade |
A. | m 10 |
B. | m 15 |
C. | m 20 |
D. | m 35 |
Answer» B. m 15 | |
Explanation: the concrete used for cement concrete roads is of grade m 15 using 20 mm |
74. | Which of the following is the correct order of stages of estimation of concrete roads? |
A. | earthwork excavations, cement concrete for the base course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:2:8) |
B. | earthwork excavations, cement concrete for wearing course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for the base course (1:2:8) |
C. | earthwork excavations, cement concrete for the base course (1:6:9) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:7:9) |
D. | cement concrete for the base course (1:2:3), cement concrete for wearing course (2:7:9) and earthwork excavations |
Answer» A. earthwork excavations, cement concrete for the base course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:2:8) | |
Explanation: the correct order of stages of estimation of concrete roads is earth work excavations, cement concrete for the base course (1:4:8) and cement concrete for wearing course (1:2:8). cement concrete road is laid over an existing water bound macadam road. |
75. | The rates of materials used for government works are approved by |
A. | executive board |
B. | sdo |
C. | elective board |
D. | board of chief engineers |
Answer» D. board of chief engineers | |
Explanation: the board of chief engineers approves the rates of materials used for government works. however, every year, these are fixed by the superintendent engineer. |
76. | The quantity of sand required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work is |
A. | 4.76 m3 |
B. | 10.32 m3 |
C. | 8.43 m3 |
D. | 6.51 m3 |
Answer» D. 6.51 m3 | |
Explanation: approximately 1.52 m3 of dry concrete is required for 1 m3 of wet concrete. the quantity of sand required for rcc (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work is [2/(1+2+4)] x 1.52 x 15 m3 i.e. 6.51 m3. |
77. | The quantity of coarse aggregate required for RCC (1:3:6) for 20 cubic metres of work is |
A. | 18.24 m3 |
B. | 15.23 m3 |
C. | 24.87 m3 |
D. | 32.45 m3 |
Answer» A. 18.24 m3 | |
Explanation: the ratio 1:3:6 is for cement, sand and coarse aggregate. therefore, the quantity of coarse aggregate required for rcc (1:3:6) for 20 cubic metres of work is [6/(1+3+6)] x 1.52 x 20 m3 i.e. 18.24 m3. |
78. | The unit of payment of cement concrete in lintels is |
A. | per sqm |
B. | per cum |
C. | quintal |
D. | kilograms |
Answer» B. per cum | |
Explanation: the unit of payment of cement concrete in lintels is per cum. the unit of payment of r.c.c. in the slab is also per cum. here, per cum stands for per cubic metre. |
79. | Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project? |
A. | hardware and software costs |
B. | effort costs |
C. | travel and training costs |
D. | all of the mentioned |
Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
Explanation: all these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost. |
80. | Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? |
A. | costs of networking and communications |
B. | costs of providing heating and lighting office space |
C. | costs of lunch time food |
D. | costs of support staff |
Answer» C. costs of lunch time food | |
Explanation: this is a incurred by the employees. |
81. | What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software? |
A. | function-related metrics |
B. | product-related metrics |
C. | size-related metrics |
D. | none of the mentioned |
Answer» A. function-related metrics | |
Explanation: productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in some given time. function points and object points |
82. | A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost. |
A. | algorithmic cost modelling |
B. | expert judgement |
C. | estimation by analogy |
D. | parkinson’s law |
Answer» A. algorithmic cost modelling | |
Explanation: the model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics. |
83. | It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code size but are often still inaccurate. |
84. | Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed? |
A. | algorithmic cost modelling |
B. | expert judgement |
C. | estimation by analogy |
D. | parkinson’s law |
Answer» C. estimation by analogy | |
Explanation: the cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects. |
85. | Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming? |
A. | an application-composition model |
B. | a post-architecture model |
C. | a reuse model |
D. | an early design model |
Answer» A. an application-composition model | |
Explanation: it is designed to make estimates of prototype development. |
86. | Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available. |
A. | case tools |
B. | pricing to win |
C. | parkinson’s law |
D. | expert judgement |
Answer» C. parkinson’s law | |
Explanation: the cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. if the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is estimated to be 60 person-months. |
87. | Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established? |
A. | an application-composition model |
B. | a post-architecture model |
C. | a reuse model |
D. | an early design model |
Answer» D. an early design model | |
Explanation: estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of source code. the formula follows the standard form ed above with a simplified set of seven multipliers. |
88. | For First class building drawing room and dining room floors shall be of |
A. | concrete |
B. | tiles |
C. | mosaic |
D. | wooden |
Answer» C. mosaic | |
Explanation: floors of bedrooms shall be coloured and polished of 2.5 cm(1”) cement concrete over 7.5 cm(3”) lime concrete. |
89. | For 2nd class building rain water pipes shall be of finished painted. |
A. | cast iron |
B. | bog iron |
C. | brown ore |
D. | pyrite |
Answer» A. cast iron | |
Explanation: cast iron is a group of iron- carbon alloys with a carbon content greater than 2%.[1] its usefulness derives from its relatively low melting temperature. the alloy constituents affect its colour when fractured: white cast iron has carbide impurities which allow cracks to pass straight through, grey cast iron has graphite flakes which deflect a passing crack and initiate countless new cracks as the material breaks, and ductile cast iron has spherical graphite “nodules” which stop the crack from further progressing. |
90. | Specification does not specify or describes the nature and the class off the work, materials to be used in the work, workmanship, etc. |
A. | false |
B. | true |
Answer» A. false | |
Explanation: specification specifies or describes the nature and the class off the work, materials to be used in the work, workmanship, etc., and is very important for the execution of the work. the cost of a work depends much on the specifications. |
91. | The specifications are written in a language so that they indicate what the work should be and words “shall be” or “should be” are used. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: the general specification for civil engineering works lays down the quality of materials, the standards of workmanship, the testing methods and the acceptance criteria for civil engineering works undertaken for the government for a particular region. where necessary, this general specification should be supplemented by a particular specification. |
92. | General specification gives the nature and the class of the work and the materials in general terms. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: it is a short description of different parts of the work specifying materials, proportion, qualities, etc. general specification give general idea of the whole work or structure and are useful for preparing the estimate. |
93. | For first class building the foundation and plinth shall be of 1st class brickwork in lime mortar or 1:2 cement mortar over lime concrete or 1:6:7 cement concrete. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: foundation and plinth shall be of 1st class brickwork in lime mortar or 1:6 cement mortar over lime concrete or 1:4:8 cement concrete. |
94. | For 2nd class building superstructure shall be of 1st class brickwork in lime mortar. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: for 2nd class building superstructure shall be of 2nd class brickwork in lime mortar. lintels over doors and windows shall be of r.b. |
95. | For third class building flooring shall be of brick-on-edge floor over well rammed earth. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: rammed earth is simple to manufacture, non-combustible, thermally massive, strong, and durable. however, structures such as walls can be laborious to construct of rammed earth without machinery, |
96. | For fourth class building the doors and windows shall be of wood or country wood. |
A. | sal |
B. | neem |
C. | teak |
D. | mango |
Answer» D. mango | |
Explanation: technically mango is a hardwood with dense grains, so it has the strength to bear the weight necessary for chairs and heavy tables, but it’s still soft enough that it’s relatively easy to work with, requiring no special tools on behalf of the manufacturers. mango furniture can stand the wear and tear of time as well as your grandmother’s oak kitchen table, but, unlike |
97. | The water proof mud- plaster consists of |
A. | soil |
B. | janta emulsion |
C. | cowdung |
D. | soil, janta emulsion and cowdung |
Answer» D. soil, janta emulsion and cowdung | |
Explanation: soil – soil should not be too much clayey nor too much sandy (50% clay and 50% sand are suitable). weight of dry earth should do about 112 kg per cu m (70 lbs per cu ft). |
98. | The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of |
A. | one or more than one brick wall |
B. | brick work in arches |
C. | reinforced brick work |
D. | half brick wall |
Answer» D. half brick wall | |
Explanation: half brick wall is measured in sq m. |
99. | The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq. m in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30 cm, is termed as |
A. | excavation |
B. | surface dressing |
C. | surface excavation |
D. | cutting |
Answer» C. surface excavation | |
Explanation: surface dressing is done upto 15 cm depth and surface excavation upto 30 cm depth. |
100. | The roofing cannot be made with slate. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: slate can be made into roofing slates, a type of roof shingle, or more specifically a type of roof tile, which are installed by a slater. slate has two lines of breakability – cleavage and grain – which make it possible to split the stone into thin sheets. when broken, slate retains a natural appearance while remaining relatively flat and easy to stack. |
101. | Average number of blocks required for a two-roomed house is about 2500. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: more recently, an improved version has been designed and marketed by aeroweld industries, b-9 hal industrial estate, bangalore – 560 037. the size of the blocks is 30.5 cm x 14.4 cm x 10 cm or 23 cm |
102. | Before applying water proof mud plaster, the joints should not be scrapped. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: before applying water proof mud plaster, the joints should be scrapped and wall surface should be cleaned and made damp by sprinkling water and then plaster should e applied. |
103. | For preparation of subgrade the existing subgrade should be dressed to a camber of 1 in 24 to 1 in 32. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: it is watered and allowed to soak for the night if necessary, and rolled with 8 to 10 tonne road roller. the density of the compacted soil should not be less than 1.8 gm /c.c. up to at least 6” depth. |
104. | For making bund ordinary mud wall gonda ( bund) about 8” * 6” shall be made on the sides. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: bunding, also called a bund wall, is a constructed retaining wall around storage “where potentially polluting substances are handled, processed or stored, for the purposes of containing any unintended escape of material from that area until such time as remedial action can be taken. |
105. | A written report is more formal than an oral report. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: the statement is true. a written report is more formal in nature than an oral report and it removes almost every flaw inherent in an oral report. |
106. | Which of these is usually written in a form of a memorandum? |
A. | informal reports |
B. | formal reports |
C. | professional reports |
D. | business reports |
Answer» A. informal reports | |
Explanation: written reports can be of two types. they are: formal reports and informal reports. informal reports are normally written in the form of a memorandum or a letter. |
107. | Which of these is not a formal report? |
A. | informational |
B. | informal |
C. | interpretative |
D. | routine |
Answer» B. informal | |
Explanation: formal reports can be classified into three different types. they are : informational, interpretative and routine. |
108. | Into which of these types are formal reports not classified? |
A. | informational |
B. | interpretative |
C. | oral |
D. | routine |
Answer» C. oral | |
Explanation: formal reports are written reports. they can be classified into three types : informational, interpretative and routine. |
109. | Which of these reports provide information without any evaluation? |
A. | informational |
B. | interpretative |
C. | routine |
D. | progress |
Answer» A. informational | |
Explanation: informational reports accumulate and provide information without any assessment or evaluation. they do not make any recommendations they do not give any findings. |
110. | report provides rational findings. |
A. | informative |
B. | interpretative |
C. | routine |
D. | progress |
Answer» B. interpretative | |
Explanation: interpretative reports do not merely provide data. they assess this data and provide rational findings and worthwhile recommendations. |
111. | Interpretative reports are also known as |
A. | recommendation reports |
B. | routine reports |
C. | progress reports |
D. | informal reports |
Answer» A. recommendation reports | |
Explanation: the correct statement is: interpretative reports are also known as recommendation reports. they assess the data and provide rational findings and worthwhile recommendations. |
112. | Which of these reports are written for recording information? |
A. | informational |
B. | interpretative |
C. | routine |
D. | recommendation |
Answer» C. routine | |
Explanation: routine reports are normally written for recording information which is required at periodic intervals. in most cases there may be printed forms where relevant gaps have to be filled with acquired data. |
113. | Which of these is not mentioned in a progress report? |
A. | name of project |
B. | right choice of instruments |
C. | nature of work |
D. | amount of work left |
Answer» B. right choice of instruments | |
Explanation: a progress report should contain information like: name of project, nature of project, extent of work to be completed, amount of work left, etc.. |
114. | Which of these reports involves the checking of a piece of equipment to see if it’s still in working condition? |
A. | progress report |
B. | laboratory report |
C. | inspection report |
D. | inventory report |
Answer» C. inspection report | |
Explanation: an inspection report is made when: an equipment is inspected to establish whether or not it is in working condition. |
115. | Box culverts can be defined as a passage for water over a natural ground having a deck slab over it as path way for vehicles. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: slab culvert- a passage for water over a natural ground having a deck slab over it as path way for vehicles. |
116. | The process of removing culverts, which is becoming increasingly prevalent, is known as |
A. | outlighting |
B. | culverting |
C. | daylighting |
D. | inlighting |
Answer» C. daylighting | |
Explanation: in urban design and urban planning, daylighting is the redirection of a stream into an above-ground channel. |
117. | An culvert is normally a low profile culvert. It allows them to be installed without disturbing the causeway as it will span over the entire drainage width. |
A. | box |
B. | rectangle |
C. | arch |
D. | circular |
Answer» C. arch | |
Explanation: they are normally made of metal, stone masonry or rcc. they are installed easily, and you don’t need to use expensive water diversion structures to install it. common shapes include semicircular arch, elliptical arch, and concrete box culverts. |
118. | Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime? |
A. | data theft |
B. | forgery |
C. | damage to data and systems |
D. | installing antivirus for protection |
Answer» D. installing antivirus for protection | |
Explanation: cyber crimes are one of the most threatening terms that is an evolving phase. it is said that major percentage of the world war iii will be based on cyber-attacks by cyber armies of different countries. |
119. | Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: cyber-laws were incorporated in our law book not only to punish cyber criminals but to reduce cyber crimes and tie the hands of citizens from doing illicit digital |
120. | Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime? |
A. | phishing |
B. | injecting trojans to a target victim |
C. | mitm |
D. | credit card details leak in deep web |
Answer» D. credit card details leak in deep web | |
Explanation: phishing, injecting trojans and worms to individuals comes under peer-to- peer cyber crime. whereas, leakage of credit card data of a large number of people in deep web comes under computer as weapon cyber- crime. |
121. | Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime? |
A. | credit card fraudulent |
B. | spying someone using keylogger |
C. | ipr violation |
D. | pornography |
Answer» B. spying someone using keylogger | |
Explanation: ddos (distributed denial of service), ipr violation, pornography are mass attacks done using a computer. spying |
122. | Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals? |
A. | unauthorized account access |
B. | mass attack using trojans as botnets |
C. | email spoofing and spamming |
D. | report vulnerability in any system |
Answer» D. report vulnerability in any system | |
Explanation: cyber-criminals are involved in activities like accessing online accounts in unauthorized manner; use trojans to attack large systems, sending spoofed emails. but cyber-criminals do not report any bug is found in a system, rather they exploit the bug for their profit. |
123. | What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature? |
A. | india’s technology (it) act, 2000 |
B. | india’s digital information technology (dit) act, 2000 |
C. | india’s information technology (it) act, 2000 |
D. | the technology act, 2008 |
Answer» C. india’s information technology (it) act, 2000 | |
Explanation: the indian legislature thought of adding a chapter that is dedicated to cyber law. this finally brought india’s information technology (it) act, 2000 which deals with the different cyber-crimes and their associated laws. |
124. | In which year India’s IT Act came into existence? |
A. | 2000 |
B. | 2001 |
C. | 2002 |
D. | 2003 |
Answer» A. 2000 | |
Explanation: on 17th oct 2000, the indian legislature thought of adding a chapter that is dedicated to cyber law, for which india’s |
125. | The Information Technology Act -2000 bill was passed by K. R. Narayanan. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: the bill was passed & signed by dr. k. r. narayanan on 9th may, in the year 2000. the bill got finalised by head officials along with the minister of information technology, dr. pramod mahajan. |
126. | Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a cyber-crime. |
A. | 65 |
B. | 65-d |
C. | 67 |
D. | 70 |
Answer» A. 65 | |
Explanation: when a cyber-criminal steals any computer documents, assets or any software’s source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means then the cyber crime falls under section 65 of it act, 2000. |
127. | What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means? |
A. | 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of rs. 50,000 |
B. | 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of rs. 100,000 |
C. | 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of rs. 250,000 |
D. | 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of rs. 500,000 |
Answer» D. 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of rs. 500,000 | |
Explanation: the punishment in india for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means is 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of rs. 500,000. |
128. | What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000? |
A. | it act, 2007 |
B. | advanced it act, 2007 |
C. | it act, 2008 |
D. | advanced it act, 2008 |
Answer» C. it act, 2008 | |
Explanation: in the year 2008, the it act, 2000 was updated and came up with a much broader and precise law on different computer-related crimes and cyber offenses. |
129. | In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated? |
A. | 2006 |
B. | 2008 |
C. | 2010 |
D. | 2012 |
Answer» B. 2008 | |
Explanation: in the year 2008, the it act, 2000 was updated and came up with a much broader and precise law on different computer-related crimes and cyber offenses. |
130. | What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the Indian IT Act holds? |
A. | cracking or illegally hack into any system |
B. | putting antivirus into the victim |
C. | stealing data |
D. | stealing hardware components |
Answer» A. cracking or illegally hack into any system | |
Explanation: under section 66 of it act, 2000 which later came up with a much broader and precise law says that cracking or illegally hacking into any victim’s computer is a crime. it covers a wide range of cyber- crimes under this section of the it act. |
131. | Quotations are letters of enquiry. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: the statement is true. quotations are letters of enquiry in which an organisation or an individual asks another organisation or individual to quote its or his rates and terms of payment for the goods intended to be purchased. |
132. | Where is the name of the company inviting mentioned in an invitation of quotation? |
A. | top left corner |
B. | bottom left corner |
C. | top right corner |
D. | bottom right corner |
Answer» C. top right corner | |
Explanation: the name of the company inviting is mentioned in the top right corner on an invitation of quotation along with the address and date. |
133. | Where is the name of the company which is invited mentioned? |
A. | top left corner |
B. | top right corner |
C. | bottom left corner |
D. | bottom right corner |
Answer» A. top left corner | |
Explanation: the name of the company which is invited is mentioned in the top left corner in an invitation of quotation below the address of the inviting party. |
134. | Where is the courteous leave-taking mentioned in an invitation of quotation? |
A. | top left |
B. | bottom right |
C. | top right |
D. | bottom left |
Answer» B. bottom right | |
Explanation: the courteous leave-taking is mentioned in the bottom right corner along with signature and designation. |
135. | Quotations are friendly letters. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: the statement is false. quotations are letters of enquiry and thus are business letters. it is normal to invite quotations from a large number of sellers. |
136. | A tender is advertised in |
A. | newspapers |
B. | business environment |
C. | domestic markets |
D. | sellers |
Answer» A. newspapers | |
Explanation: there is a difference between quotations and tenders. a tender is advertised in newspapers, magazines, etc.. |
137. | 7 DRAFTING MODEL TENDERS , E-TENDERING- DIGITAL SIGNATURE CERTIFICATES- ENCRYPTING – DECRYPTING |
A. | date |
B. | notice number |
C. | sign |
D. | designation |
Answer» C. sign | |
Explanation: a tender does not have the sign of the authority mentioned in it. it only has the designation mentioned. |
138. | Where is the designation of the authority giving the tender mentioned? |
A. | top center |
B. | bottom left |
C. | bottom right |
D. | top left |
Answer» C. bottom right | |
Explanation: the name of the authority is mentioned in the bottom right corner along with the organization’s name and branch. |
139. | Where is the name of the organization mentioned in the tender? |
A. | top left |
B. | top center |
C. | top right |
D. | bottom center |
Answer» B. top center | |
Explanation: the name of the organization along with tender notice number and date is mentioned in the top center in bold in the beginning. |
140. | Which of these is mentioned in a tender? |
A. | notice number |
B. | signature |
C. | address of the tenderer |
D. | courteous leave-taking |
Answer» A. notice number | |
Explanation: in the top center, the name and address of the organisation is mentioned along with the tender notice number and the date. |
141. | The core of reverse engineering is an activity called |
A. | restructure code |
B. | directionality |
C. | extract abstractions |
D. | interactivity |
Answer» C. extract abstractions | |
Explanation: the engineer must evaluate the old program and extract a meaningful specification of the processing that is performed, the user interface that is applied, and the program data structures or database that is used. |
142. | Forward engineering is also known as |
A. | extract abstractions |
B. | renovation |
C. | reclamation |
D. | both renovation and reclamation |
Answer» D. both renovation and reclamation | |
Explanation: forward engineering, also called renovation or reclamation , not only recovers design information from existing software, but uses this information to alter or reconstitute the existing system in an effort to improve its overall quality. |
143. | Reverse engineering techniques for internal program data focus on the definition of classes of objects. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true | |
Explanation: this is accomplished by examining the program code with the intent of grouping related program variables. |
144. | Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model: |
A. | build an initial object model |
B. | determine candidate keys |
C. | refine the tentative classes |
D. | discover user interfaces |
Answer» D. discover user interfaces | |
Explanation: once information defined in the preceding steps is known, a series of transformations can be applied to map the old database structure into a new database structure. |
145. | Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are equivalent processes of software engineering. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: re engineering is a process of analysis and change whereby a system is modified by first reverse engineering and then forward engineering. |
146. | Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering? |
A. | to reduce maintenance effort |
B. | to cope with complexity |
C. | to avoid side effects |
D. | to assist migration to a case environment |
Answer» D. to assist migration to a case environment | |
Explanation: reverse engineering helps us to detect side effects rather than avoiding them. |
147. | A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding legal agreement is known as |
A. | job |
B. | loan |
C. | contract |
D. | mutual fund |
Answer» C. contract | |
Explanation: a contract arises when the parties agree that there is an agreement. formation of a contract generally requires an offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual intent to be bound. each party to a contract must have capacity to enter the agreement. |
148. | What is the type of mistake which occurs when only one party to a contract is mistaken as to the terms or subject-matter? |
A. | mutual mistake |
B. | unilateral mistake |
C. | bilateral mistake |
D. | individual mistake |
Answer» B. unilateral mistake | |
Explanation: the courts will uphold such a contract unless it was determined that the non-mistaken party was aware of the mistake and tried to take advantage of the mistake. it is also possible for a contract to be void if there was a mistake in the identity of the contracting party. an example is in lewis v. |
149. | How are final contracts signed in modern business? |
A. | e-signatures |
B. | document scanning |
C. | thump impression |
D. | shaking hands |
Answer» A. e-signatures | |
Explanation: electronic signatures, or e- signatures, have become crucial for businesses as they seek to increase the speed of time-to-signature, e-signatures are legally binding and have the same legal status as a written signature, as long as it fulfills the requirements of the regulation it was created under. |
150. | Which tender allows anyone to submit a tender to supply the goods or services that are required? |
A. | framework tendering |
B. | selective tendering |
C. | open tendering |
D. | close tendering |
Answer» C. open tendering | |
Explanation: on larger projects, there may then be a pre-qualification process that produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who will be invited to prepare tenders. this sort of pre-qualification process is not the same as |
151. | involves the preparation of tenders based on a typical or notional bill of quantities or schedule of works. |
A. | framework tendering |
B. | selective tendering |
C. | negotiated tendering |
D. | serial tendering |
Answer» D. serial tendering | |
Explanation: the rates submitted can then be used to value works over a series of similar projects, often for a fixed period of time following which the tendering procedure may be repeated. serial tendering can reduce tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to submit low rates to secure an ongoing program of work. |
152. | tendering is used when all the information necessary to calculate a realistic price is available when tendering commences. |
A. | single-stage |
B. | double-stage |
C. | framework |
D. | serial |
Answer» A. single-stage | |
Explanation: single-stage tendering is the more traditional route, used when all the information necessary to calculate a realistic price is available when tendering commences: |
153. | An invitation to tender might not include? |
A. | holiday packages |
B. | preliminarie |
C. | a letter of invitation to tender |
D. | design drawing |
Answer» A. holiday packages | |
Explanation: an invitation to tender might be issued for a range of contracts, including; equipment supply, the main construction contract (perhaps including design by the contractor), demolition, enabling works and |
154. | Mutual mistake occurs when both parties of a contract are mistaken as to the terms. |
A. | false |
B. | true |
Answer» B. true | |
Explanation: each believes they are contracting to something different. courts |
155. | In Schedule contract the contractor undertakes the execution or construction of specific work with all its contingencies, to complete it in all respect within a specified time for a fixed amount. |
A. | false |
B. | true |
Answer» A. false | |
Explanation: in lump sum contract the contractor undertakes the execution or construction of specific work with all its contingencies, to complete it in all respect within a specified time for a fixed amount. in this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a specified lump sum after the completion of work without a cost breakdown. after work no detailed measurements are required. |
156. | A pumping set with a motor has been installed in a building at a cost of Rs.2500.00. Assuming the life of the pump as 15 years, work out the amount of annual instalment of sinking fund required to be deposited to accumulate the whole amount of 4% compound interest. |
A. | rs.355 |
B. | rs.125 |
C. | rs.185 |
D. | rs.1950 |
Answer» B. rs.125 | |
Explanation: the annual sinking fund, i = si |
157. | In this method, it is assumed that the property will lose its value by a constant percentage of its value at the beginning of every year. This method is called? |
A. | sinking fund method |
B. | constant percentage method |
C. | straight line method |
D. | quantity survey method |
Answer» C. straight line method | |
Explanation: in this method a fixed amount of the original cost is deducted every year so that at the end of the utility period only the scrap value is left. |
158. | Obsolescence is the annual periodic payments for repayments of the capital amount invested by a party. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: an annuity is a series of payments made at equal intervals. examples of annuities are regular deposits to a savings account, monthly home mortgage payments, monthly insurance payments and pension payments. annuities can be classified by the frequency of payment dates. the payments (deposits) may be made weekly, monthly, quarterly, yearly, or at any other regular |
159. | Scrap value is the net annual letting value of a property, which is obtained after deducting the amount of yearly repairs from the gross income. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false | |
Explanation: in financial accounting, scrap value is associated with the depreciation of assets used in a business. in this situation, scrap value is defined as the expected or estimated value of the asset at the end of its useful life. scrap value is also referred to as an asset’s salvage value or residual value. |
160. | Approximate cost of a hostel building for 100 students sherrylarson51.10000/- per student works out as Rs. 10 lakhs. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» A. true |
161. | Cube rate estimate is less accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate as the height of the building is also compared. |
A. | false |
B. | true |
Answer» B. true |
162. | For storeyed building plinth area estimate is not prepared for each storey separately. |
A. | true |
B. | false |
Answer» B. false |
163. | In this method approx. total length of walls is found in running metre and this total length multiplied by the rate per running metre of wall gives a fairly accurate cost. |
A. | annual repair |
B. | item rate estimate |
C. | approximate quantity method estimate |
D. | cubical content estimate |
Answer» C. approximate quantity method estimate |
164. | What will be the co-efficient of passive earth pressure, at a depth of 8m in cohesion less soil sand with an angle of internal friction of 30° when the water rises to the ground level? |
A. | 4 |
B. | 5 |
C. | 3 |
D. | 1 |
Answer» C. 3 |
165. | Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools? |
A. | an application-composition model |
B. | a post-architecture model |
C. | a reuse model |
D. | an early design model |
Answer» C. a reuse model |
166. | What is the full form of ITA-2000? |
A. | information tech act -2000 |
B. | indian technology act -2000 |
C. | international technology act -2000 |
D. | information technology act -2000 |
Answer» D. information technology act -2000 |
167. | In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information that can be extracted from the source code? |
A. | interactivity |
B. | completeness |
C. | abstraction level |
D. | direction level |
Answer» C. abstraction level |
168. | In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an abstraction level? |
A. | interactivity |
B. | completeness |
C. | abstraction level |
D. | directionality |
Answer» B. completeness |
169. | Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its |
A. | gui |
B. | database |
C. | source code |
D. | all of the mentioned |
Answer» C. source code |
170. | Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing the external manifestation of the existing |
A. | candidate keys |
B. | interface |
C. | database structure |
D. | none of the mentioned |
Answer» B. interface |
171. | Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called |
A. | data analysis |
B. | directionality |
C. | data extraction |
D. | client applications |
Answer» A. data analysis |
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